So this question came up during my last psychedelic trip (a few months ago). I was having an intense spiritual experience, laughing like a maniac at the cosmic joke. The fact that each of us is constantly subconsciously searching for ourselves in everything except where we're supposed to, and never finding it (no shit) was so hilarious I couldn't stop. Meanwhile, this friend of mine – we'll call him Tom – who in the previous trip had the first awakening of his life, was struggling with this question, however, and I couldn't really answer it in a way that I found straightforward and satisfying. If we are all one, "Being" itself, and Being is Divine, Infinite awareness, why can we only perceive our own thoughts? More generally, even in profound mystical states of consciousness, we can see consensual reality dissolving along with its illusory boundaries, yet we seem to do so from "our own" point of view (POV). In that way, we are limited to one POV only, aren't we? Even if we reach Infinite states of consciousness and transcend habitual reality, that seems to only happen for that particular fragment of Being that we call "me". Through senses that seem to be bound to our body. So if I'm Tom, and assuming Tom's consciousness (my own) really did perceive a thought that said "I can only perceive my own thoughts", why wasn't it in my direct experience? Did that thought exist at all? Does Tom even have his own POV? If so, isn't there an "ownership" there? HIS qualia that is somehow distinct and inaccessible to me? There seems to be a force that keeps us separated in some very fundamental sense from being One qualia all the time. But if it's possible to trascend it during an enlightened human's lifetime, in higher planes of existence, why is there no verified case of telepathy ever? Shit, I'm sure I need to contemplate more on that. Any insight would be apprenciated.