Aryan Invasion Theory Debunked

[Johnlennan]

There is overwhelming evidence suggesting that the aryan invasion theory is false. But most of western media refuses to acknowledge it. I attached a great journal article outlining key scientific findings that oppose the theory. I think this is important because it is white washing alot of India's history. Just wanted to let you guys know, because there is absolutely no convincing scientific evidence that supports this. Europeans scholars found similarities to indian languages to theirs and because of their self bias, they concluded that the "aryans" are some race that came to india. When really, the first occurrence of the word arya was in the vedas which has a totally different meaning and has nothing to do with a race. Please take a read.

AITnoScienceJournal.pdf

[Scholar]

I gave this a quick read and it seems like the backlash against the Aryan Invasion Theory has more to do with Indian Nationalism.

https://scroll.in/article/936872/two-new-genetic-studies-upheld-aryan-migration-theory-so-why-did-indian-media-report-the-opposite

 

I will not download the pdf you provided, maybe find a link to some website that has the pdf.

[Johnlennan]

@ScholarSearch up the journal article "There is no scientific basis  for the Aryan Invasion Theory T.  R.  S.  Prasanna "

 

[Yog]

Archaeological and linguistic evidence seems good enough.

You also have to take into account that in some areas the influence will be partial. Somewhere only language or culture will pass to certain degrees. Invading, migrating cultures don't override everything. So in that sense there will always feel like somewhere there is lack of evidence.

[Buba]

13 hours ago, Johnlennan said:

There is overwhelming evidence suggesting that the aryan invasion theory is false. But most of western media refuses to acknowledge it. I attached a great journal article outlining key scientific findings that oppose the theory. I think this is important because it is white washing alot of India's history. Just wanted to let you guys know, because there is absolutely no convincing scientific evidence that supports this. Europeans scholars found similarities to indian languages to theirs and because of their self bias, they concluded that the "aryans" are some race that came to india. When really, the first occurrence of the word arya was in the vedas which has a totally different meaning and has nothing to do with a race. Please take a read.

AITnoScienceJournal.pdf

Then how come a language emerged in Eurasian steppes appeared in Indian subcontinent?

[Jodistrict]

The invasion theory was developed by the colonialist occupiers after they noticed that certain words in English and Sanskrit are similar.   In other words, there was never any actual proof of any invasion.  The concern of Indian politicians is understandable.  In the past, the British Empire occupiers used “divide and conquer” as a technique for domination and control.  In my opinion, it was a mistake to allow the Western scientists to collect data for their genetic history research – which is just another unproven western “science” pawning speculation as fact.    

[snowyowl]

Culture can also spread by other means than invasion, peaceful migration and trade for example. 

[Johnlennan]

@Buba Even if it were discovered there. That's not sufficient evidence saying that there was an "Aryan" race that came from the west to India. You can just as easily make a conclusion to the contrary. There's no science here, just bias based conclusions from the British.

[Johnlennan]

@Scholar @Yog It's not rooted in nationalism, it's rooted in reasonable doubt. There is no evidence that is sufficient to make the conclusion that there was some Aryan race that travelled from the west to India. Just because there are similarities between the Iranians and the Indians, doesn't mean that you can make the conclusion that they came from the west. They can just so have easily come from the east. It's just that the colonial occupiers made a conclusion that made them look better. This is because the Vedas and the Upanishads were actually highly advanced pieces of writing. There was no evidence of any Sanskrit text in British along that era. 

Edited February 19, 2022 by Johnlennan
Needed to add one more username shout out